Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 04:43
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
What is the most ridiculous obviously false verse in the Bible?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Can a mother forget her child after she puts him or her up for adoption?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Is it possible to earn money by writing and self-publishing a Light novel on Amazon Kindle?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.